A 32-year-old male appears with a rapid onset of unilateral scrotal pain radiating up to the groin and flank. The nurse practitioner is trying to differentiate between epididymitis and testicular torsion. Which test should be the provider’s first choice?
A male patient presents to the clinic for evaluation of infertility. Subjectively, the patient complains of pain and fullness of the testes and states, “My testicles feel like a bag of worms.” On physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes tortuous veins posterior to and above the testes that extend up into the external inguinal ring. Based on the preceding assessment, the nurse practitioner refers the patient to urology with a diagnosis of:
A patient’s chief complaint is pain and heaviness in the scrotum. The nurse practitioner notes swelling of the testes, along with warm scrotal skin. Which of the following diagnoses is most probable?